Dear corporate neolib SJW's,
Explain in your own words how "white privilege" could be something that purportedly objectively exists, despite data showing that black women have higher economic mobility than white women at all income levels.
The "white privilege" challenge
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Dear corporate neolib SJW's,
Explain in your own words how "white privilege" could be something that purportedly objectively exists, despite data showing that black women have higher economic mobility than white women at all income levels.where is this data? and if so why would black women have a fraction of white women's wealth at all income levels? can you cite this?
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Sor ry, but I think most of us have just lost interest in these posts.
Perh aps tell us what you know about operationalization and conceptualization in the soci al sciences, then te ll us why you still think this is an interesting question or appropriate way to phr ase it.
Th at interests me more than re pli ca ting the past 900 iter ati ons of thi s.
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Imagine the following world:
200 people, all women.
100 black women.
100 white women.
Income distributions at T1 are as follows: (Level 1 = poor, Level 2 = average, Level 3 rich, )
Black:
Level 1: 60
Level 2: 20
Level 3: 20
White:
Level 1: 10
Level 2: 50
Level 3: 40
Income distributions at T2 are as follows:
Black
Level 1: 40
Level 2: 40
Level 3: 30
White
Level 1: 10
Level 2: 50
Level 3: 40Here you have greater mobility for black than white women at every category, and yet white women still have greater overall average SES.
It was a good question though, and I'm sure mom will make you some more French toast if you keep up the good work.
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https://www.bbc.com/news/world-us-canada-45026755
Dear corporate neolib SJW's,
Explain in your own words how "white privilege" could be something that purportedly objectively exists, despite data showing that black women have higher economic mobility than white women at all income levels. -
Dear corporate neolib SJW's,
Explain in your own words how "white privilege" could be something that purportedly objectively exists, despite data showing that black women have higher economic mobility than white women at all income levels.You think there is only one dimension of privilege? Really? And that mobility captures all of even that one dimension? Econ undergrads are so du/m/b these days.
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Imagine the following world:
200 people, all women.
100 black women.
100 white women.
Income distributions at T1 are as follows: (Level 1 = poor, Level 2 = average, Level 3 rich, )
Black:
Level 1: 60
Level 2: 20
Level 3: 20
White:
Level 1: 10
Level 2: 50
Level 3: 40
Income distributions at T2 are as follows:
Black
Level 1: 40
Level 2: 40
Level 3: 30
White
Level 1: 10
Level 2: 50
Level 3: 40
Here you have greater mobility for black than white women at every category, and yet white women still have greater overall average SES.
It was a good question though, and I'm sure mom will make you some more French toast if you keep up the good work.An excellent illustration. Thanks!
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You're welcome - was fun to think about. Felt like it should work out in my head, but wasn't sure until I wrote it all out.
Imagine the following world:
200 people, all women.
100 black women.
100 white women.
Income distributions at T1 are as follows: (Level 1 = poor, Level 2 = average, Level 3 rich, )
Black:
Level 1: 60
Level 2: 20
Level 3: 20
White:
Level 1: 10
Level 2: 50
Level 3: 40
Income distributions at T2 are as follows:
Black
Level 1: 40
Level 2: 40
Level 3: 30
White
Level 1: 10
Level 2: 50
Level 3: 40
Here you have greater mobility for black than white women at every category, and yet white women still have greater overall average SES.
It was a good question though, and I'm sure mom will make you some more French toast if you keep up the good work.
An excellent illustration. Thanks! -
Dear corporate neolib SJW's,
Explain in your own words how "white privilege" could be something that purportedly objectively exists, despite data showing that black women have higher economic mobility than white women at all income levels.
You think there is only one dimension of privilege? Really? And that mobility captures all of even that one dimension? Econ undergrads are so du/m/b these days.Is there URM privilege in college and HS admissions?
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This is a function of the absurdity of the law when taken to extremes; it is not evidence of the absence of white privilege. Like everything else taken to extremes, this, too, is absurd.
Whote officer wins suit over claim he was mocked for black ancestry
https://www.bbc.com/news/world-us-canada-45026755 -
I post it as an example of the social basis of raceand of white privilege in action.
This is a function of the absurdity of the law when taken to extremes; it is not evidence of the absence of white privilege. Like everything else taken to extremes, this, too, is absurd.
Whote officer wins suit over claim he was mocked for black ancestry
https://www.bbc.com/news/world-us-canada-45026755 -
Huh? Did I really need to clarify this is the frequency distribution?
Black
Level 1: 40 = 40
Level 2: 40 = 80
Level 3: 30 = 90
Total: 210
Average: 70White
Level 1: 10 = 10
Level 2: 50 = 100
Level 3: 40 = 120
Total: 230
Average: More than 70The average. Is 100 at each level? Shows nothing!
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Huh? Did I really need to clarify this is the frequency distribution?
Black
Level 1: 40 = 40
Level 2: 40 = 80
Level 3: 30 = 90
Total: 210
Average: 70
White
Level 1: 10 = 10
Level 2: 50 = 100
Level 3: 40 = 120
Total: 230
Average: More than 70
The average. Is 100 at each level? Shows nothing!Exactly.
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Imagine the following world:
200 people, all women.
100 black women.
100 white women.
Income distributions at T1 are as follows: (Level 1 = poor, Level 2 = average, Level 3 rich, )
Black:
Level 1: 60
Level 2: 20
Level 3: 20
White:
Level 1: 10
Level 2: 50
Level 3: 40
Income distributions at T2 are as follows:
Black
Level 1: 40
Level 2: 40
Level 3: 30
White
Level 1: 10
Level 2: 50
Level 3: 40
Here you have greater mobility for black than white women at every category, and yet white women still have greater overall average SES."Greater overall advantage" is a vague way to describe this.
Neoliberals claim that all white people enjoy automatic advantage on account of their race. If this was true, economic mobility would follow.
"Privilege" is basically never clearly defined by neoliberal sociologists or defined in arbitrary, ad hoc, and shifting manner such that whites are automatically defined as "most privileged" group even when objectively speaking they are not the most advantaged group per many measures (noting income, health, mobility, education access, across all racial groups).
If whites had "automatic unearned advantage" on account of their race, it would follow that impoverished whites would enjoy greater economic mobility than impoverished members of other races but instead the opposite is true. What exactly is the "racial privilege" an impoverished white woman enjoys over an impoverished black woman if she is less likely to escape poverty on account of her race?See:
https://www.wsws.org/en/articles/2018/04/06/ine2-a06.html